1. A communication management plan identifies the relevant information that should be communicated to_____.
a. The project team.
b. The project stakeholders.
c. The project board.
d. The project sponsor.
2. Which one of the following statements is true?
a. Independent reviews and quality audits form part of quality assurance to ensure the project manager delivers on time and to budget.
b. Quality assurance provides confidence to stakeholders that requirements for quality will be exceeded.
c. Quality control verifies that the project deliverables conform to specification, are fit for purpose and meet stakeholder expectations.
d. Quality planning enables the project manager to manage the trade-off between customer expectations and budget.
3. Project risk management is best described as_______.
a. Managing responses to threats.
b. Identifying and acknowledging threats and opportunities.
c. Planning responses to threats.
d. Minimizing threats and maximizing opportunities.
4. Which one of the following best describes a project issue?
a. A major problem that requires formal escalation.
b. A problem that the project manager has to deal with on a day-to-day basis.
c. An uncertain event that may or may not occur.
d. An opportunity that occurs through change control.
5. Scheduling can best be defined as the process used to determine______.
a. Overall project duration.
b. Project cost estimating.
c. The project management plan.
d. Sub-contractor’s responsibilities.
6. Which one of the following statements is true?
a. An increase in project scope is likely to increase project cost.
b. A decrease in the project time is likely to increase project quality.
c. An increase in the project quality requirements is likely to decrease project cost.
d. A decrease in the project cost is likely to decrease project time.
7. Which one of the following statements best defines the purpose of a Product Breakdown Structure (PBS)?
a. To define the hierarchy of deliverables that are required to be produced on the project.
b. To define how the products are produced by identifying derivations and dependencies.
c. To establish the extent of work required prior to project commissioning and the handover.
d. To identify the health and safety strategies and procedures to be used on the project.
8. Which one of the following is least likely to be a success criteria?
a. A target for the project to receive zero change requests.
b. The date by which the project is to be completed.
c. Delivery of products that meet required specifications.
d. The awarding of bonuses to senior management.
9. Which one of the following is a valid project Key Performance Indicator (KPI)?
a. Staff appraisals.
b. Management buy in.
c. Milestone achievement.
d. Master schedule.
10. Which one of the following statements is true?
a. The business case is owned by the sponsor and is created during the concept phase of the project life cycle.
b. The business case is owned by the project manager and is created during the concept phase of the project life cycle.
c. The business case is owned by the sponsor and is created during definition phase of the project life cycle.
d. The business case is owned by the project manager and is created during the definition phase of the project life cycle.
11. Who owns the Project Management Plan (PMP)?
a. The project team.
b. The chief executive.
c. The project manager.
d. The project support office.
12. Which one of the following best describes users?
a. Providers of both strategic and tactical direction to the project.
b. Those intended to receive benefits or operate outputs.
c. Facilitators of an appropriate issue resolution procedure.
d. Those providing full-time commitment to the project.
13. Which statement best describes a responsibility of the project manager______.
a. to be the sole source of expertise for estimating techniques on cost and time.
b. to deliver the project objectives to enable benefits to be realised.
c. to take ultimate accountability for the delivery of the business benefits.
d. to delegate all accountability for managing time, cost and quality to team leaders.
14. A project is typically defined in terms of scope, time, cost and which other parameter?
a. Benefits.
b. Quality.
c. Tolerance.
d. Controls.
15. Which one of the following statements is true?
a. Business-as-usual activities cannot be improved.
b. Business-as-usual activities are more difficult to manage than projects.
c. Projects are transient endeavors that bring about change to business-as-usual.
d. A project is always the starting point for operation refinement.
16. What is defined as “the ability to influence and align others towards a common purpose”?
a. Teamwork.
b. Motivation.
c. Management.
d. Leadership.
17. Which one is a true statement relating to project communications?
a. A project sponsor is responsible for all communication methods and media.
b. Different stakeholders typically have different communication needs.
c. It is best to have a standard set of project reports used for every project.
d. Email is the only way to communicate with large numbers of people.
18. In project management, the term quality is best defined as________.
a. Inspection, testing and measurement.
b. Reviews and audits.
c. Fitness for purpose of deliverables.
d. Professionally-bound project reports.
19. The main outcome of risk identification, in a risk management process, is to_______.
a. Identify and determine the relative importance of the project risks.
b. Identify and describe all risks that might occur on the project.
c. Identify and determine the responses to the project risks.
d. Identify and describe risks that have occurred on previous projects.
20. Which one of the following is not considered in resource management?
a. Identifying resources.
b. Influencing resources.
c. Assigning resources to activities.
d. Matching resources to the schedule.
21. Which one of the following does project change control primarily seek to ensure?
a. All variance to the project scope is evaluated.
b. No reduction in the perceived quality of the project outcome.
c. Management costs of the project do not increase.
d. Any decrease in the scoped deliverable of the project is rejected.
22. Which one of the following is captured in the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)?
a. The life cycle phases.
b. The logical order of tasks.
c. The scope of the project.
d. Project costs.
23. Project reporting can best be defined as_______.
a. Informing stakeholders about the project.
b. Storing and archiving of project information.
c. Gathering stakeholder feedback.
d. Collecting project information.
24. Which one of the following statements best defines an estimate?
a. An approximation of project time and cost targets, refined throughout the project life cycle.
b. A prediction of a future condition or event based on information or knowledge available now.
c. The value of useful work done at any given point in a project to give a measure of progress.
d. A situation that affects or influences the outcome of the project expressed in time or cost terms.
25. The justification for the investment to be made in a project is documented in the_______.
a. Cost Breakdown Structure.
b. Procurement strategy.
c. Business case.
d. Project Management Plan.
26. Which of these is not one of the constraints of a project?
a. Scope
b. Resources
c. Team
d. Budget
27. Which of the following is not correct about initial phase of a project?
a. The cost associated at the beginning of the project is highest.
b. Stakeholders have maximum influence during this phase
c. The highest uncertainty is at this stage of the project.
d. All the above statements are correct.
28. The project you are managing has nine stakeholders. How many channel of communications are there between these stakeholders?
a. 9
b. 8
c. 45
d. 36
29. Which of the following is not an example of formal communication?
a. Contract
b. email
c. Project status report
d. Status meeting
30. A Project with a total funding of $100,000 finished with a BAC value of $95,000. What term can BEST describe the difference of $5,000?
a. Cost Variance
b. Management Overhead
c. Management Contingency Reserve
d. Schedule Variance
31. If the Earned Value is equal to Actual Cost, it means_____.
a. Project is on budget and on schedule
b. Schedule Variance Index is 1
c. There is no schedule variance
d. There is no cost variance
32. Which of the following is the most important element of Project Management Plan that is useful in HR Planning process______.
a. Risk Management activities
b. Quality Assurance activities
c. Activity Resource requirements
d. Budget Control activities
33. Which of the following types of Organizational Charts can be BEST used to track project costs ______.
a. Hierarchical-type Organizational Chart
b. Organizational Breakdown Structure
c. Resource Breakdown Structure
d. Responsibility Assignment Matrix
34. Which of the following is not true for a Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM)____.
a. Defines what project team is responsible for each WBS component
b. Defines what project member is responsible for each activity
c. Text description of roles, responsibilities, authorities
d. Defines all people associated with each activity
35. Process Analysis is a function of_____.
a. Performance Analysis
b. Quality Metrics
c. Process Improvement Plan
d. Quality Improvement Plan
36. Root Cause Analysis relates to_____.
a. Process Analysis
b. Quality Audits
c. Quality Control Measurements
d. Performance Measurements
37. A planning phase for an engineering component generated 80 engineering drawings. The QA team randomly selected 8 drawings for inspection. This exercise can BEST be described as example of______.
a. Inspection
b. Statistical Sampling
c. Flowcharting
d. Control Charting
38. Andrew has joined as the Project Manager of a project. One of the project documents available to Andrew lists down all the risks in a hierarchical fashion. What is this document called?
a. Risk Management Plan.
b. List of risks.
c. Monte Carlo diagram.
d. Risk Breakdown Structure.
39. During which stage of Risk planning are risks prioritized based on probability and impact?
a. Identify Risks
b. Plan Risk responses
c. Perform Qualitative risk analysis
d. Perform Quantitative risk analysis
40. Activity Definition is typically performed by which of the following_____.
a. Project Manager who created the WBS
b. Project Team Members responsible for the work package
c. Project Officer
d. Project Stakeholder
41. Which of the following does NOT generate changes to the Project documents_____.
a. Define Activities
b. Sequence Activities
c. Estimate Activity Resources
d. Estimate Activity Durations
42. Which of the following may generate a milestone list:
a. Define Activities
b. Sequence Activities
c. Estimate Activity Resources
d. Estimate Activity Durations
43. A schedule activity may begin 10 days before the predecessor activity finishes. This is an example of______.
a. Finish-to-Start
b. Start-to-Finish
c. Start-to-Start
d. Finish-to-Finish
44. Sam Consultancy is planning to buy ten desktops for $1500 each from a leading computer store. Which type of contract will get signed in this case?
a. Purchase Order
b. Cost plus Fee
c. Fixed cost
d. Time and Material
45. Alice is a Project Manager. She is coordinating a bidder conference to allow vendors to get clarification on the work that needs to be performed. Which phase of Project Management is in progress.
a. Conduct Procurement
b. Plan Procurement
c. Control Procurement
d. Close Procurement
46. The process of Control Procurement falls under which process group
a. Planning
b. Closing
c. Monitoring and Control
d. Executing
47. The advent of project management has been most profound in______.
a. Automobile manufacturing
b. Construction
c. Information technology
d. The U.S. Department of Defense
e. Film making
48. A professional organization for project management specialists is the_____.
a. PMI
b. AMA
c. MIS
d. IPM
e. PMBOK
49. Which of the following is not considered to be a characteristic of a project?
a. An established objective
b. A clear beginning and end
c. Complex tasks
d. Only for internal use
e. Never been done before
50. Which of the following activities is not considered a project?
a. Developing a new software program
b. Designing a space station
c. Preparing the site for the Olympic Games
d. Production of automobile tires
e. Developing a new advertising program
51. Which one of the following is a responsibility of the project steering group/board?
a. To identify potential problems for the project team to solve.
b. To provide strategic direction and guidance to the sponsor.
c. To manage the project team in all daily activities.
d. To receive and consider daily reports from team members.
52. One of the reasons a project life cycle is split into phases is to_____.
a. Facilitate formal go/no-go decision-making during the project.
b. Balance the costs of work in each phase of project development.
c. Mirror the major deployments of resources throughout the project.
d. Chunk work into time periods of similar durations.
53. Which of the following best describes a project environment?
a. The type of organisation concerned with implementation.
b. The structured method used to control the project.
c. The context within which a project is undertaken.
d. An understanding of the risks involved in the project.
54. Which one of the following statements best describes a project?
a. A project is a set of tools and techniques often used when delivering organisational change.
b. A project is the sum of activities needed to remove uncertainty from a unique piece of work.
c. A unique transient endeavour undertaken to achieve a desired outcome.
d. A project is a method of planning work.
55. The document that identifies what information needs to be shared, to whom, why, when and how is called the:
a. Communication management plan.
b. Stakeholder mapping grid.
c. Document distribution schedule.
d. Responsibility assignment matrix.
56. An important aim of a post-project review is to______.
a. Validate overall progress to date against the budget and schedule.
b. Capture learning and document it for future usage.
c. Ensure acceptance of all permanent documentation, signed by the sponsor.
d. Establish that project benefits have been identified.
57. The process that evaluates overall project performance to provide confidence is called:
a. Quality assurance.
b. Quality planning.
c. Quality control.
d. Quality audit.
58. Which one of the following statements about the project risk register is false?
a. It facilitates the review and monitoring of risks.
b. It facilitates the risk appetite.
c. It facilitates the recording of risk responses.
d. It facilitates the recording of risks.
59. Which one of the following statements best defines procurement?
a. A technique to establish the best approach for obtaining the resources for the project.
b. A group of interrelated resources and activities that transform inputs into outputs.
c. The description of the purpose, form and components to support delivery of a product.
d. The process by which products and services required for the project are acquired.
60. Once a change has been requested what is the next step in the change control process?
a. Evaluate the change
b. Advise the sponsor
c. Update the change log
d. Update the project plan
61. A Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM) can be used to_____.
a. Define the terms of reference of the project manager.
b. Define the limits of the project sponsor’s responsibilities.
c. Allocate risk management response activities to project personnel.
d. Allocate work packages to those responsible for project work.
62. An Organisational Breakdown Structure (OBS) is used to identify______.
a. the reporting structure and current availability of all individuals in the project.
b. technical ability and line of communication for all individuals in the project.
c. lines of communication and responsibility for all the individual managers in the project.
d. the reporting structure and lines of communication for all individuals in the projects.
63. Which one of the following best describes project success criteria?
a. Actively seeking some senior management support.
b. Measures by which the success of the project is judged.
c. Achievement of milestones.
d. A motivated project team.
64. Comparative estimating uses_____.
a. Current data from similar projects.
b. Historic data from all projects.
c. Historic data from similar projects.
d. Current data from all projects.
65. Which one of the following best describes a project stakeholder?
a. A party who is concerned about the project going ahead.
b. A party with an interest or role in the project or is impacted by the project.
c. A party who has a vested interest in the outcome of the project.
d. A party who has a financial stake in the organisation managing the project.
66. The main purpose of the Project Management Plan is to_____.
a. Provide justification for undertaking the project in terms of evaluating the benefit, cost and risk of alternative options.
b. Ensure the project sponsor has tight control of the project manager’s activity.
c. Document the outcomes of the planning process and provide the reference document for managing the project.
d. Document the outcome of the risk, change and configuration management processes.
67. Who has ultimate responsibility for project risk?
a. Steering group.
b. Risk owner.
c. Project sponsor.
d. Project manager.
68. When a project has completed the handover and closure phase_____.
a. The project deliverables are ready for commissioning.
b. The project deliverables are ready for handing over to the users.
c. The project documentation must be disposed of.
d. The capability is now in place for the benefits to be realised.
69. Which one of the following illustrates why effective project management is beneficial to an organisation?
a. It utilises resources as and when required under direction of a project manager.
b. It advocates employing a consultancy firm which specialises in managing change.
c. It recommends using only highly skilled people in the project team.
d. It ensures that the chief executive is accountable for the achievement of the defined benefits.
70. A key aspect of managing a project involves______.
a. Defining which operational systems to put in place.
b. Identifying routine tasks.
c. Ensuring ongoing operations are maintained.
d. Planning to achieve defined objectives.
71. Which one of the following statements best defines teamwork?
a. People working collaboratively towards a common goal.
b. Developing skills that will enhance project performance.
c. Gathering the right people together to work on a project.
d. Establishing vision and direction towards a common purpose.
72. A review undertaken to decide whether a project should proceed into its next phase is known as a_______.
a. Gate review.
b. Feasibility study.
c. Milestone review.
d. Evaluation review.
73. Which one of the following statements best describes the use of an issue log?
a. A summary of all possible alternative resolutions of an issue.
b. A summary of all the project issues, their analysis and status.
c. A tool to ensure that a process is in place for capturing all issues.
d. A tool to ensure that the issue management process is adhered to.
74. The main aim of a project risk management process should be to______.
a. Identify project risks and then manage them appropriately.
b. Identify all project risks and transfer them immediately.
c. Identify all the things that are threats or opportunities on a project.
d. Satisfy the organisation’s project management process.
75. What is a visual representation of a project’s planned activities against a calendar called?
a. A Gantt chart.
b. A critical path network.
c. A product flow diagram.
d. A Pareto chart.
76. Configuration management is best described as______.
a. Control in the implementation of changes to project schedules.
b. An organisation to review proposed changes to the project deliverables.
c. Quality control of project deliverables and documentation.
d. Creation, maintenance and controlled change of the project deliverables.
77. A Cost Breakdown Structure (CBS) shows costs assigned to____.
a. individual work packages using the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS).
b. individual resources using the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS).
c. individual resources using the Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM).
d. individual deliverables using the Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM)
78. The accuracy of an estimate should______.
a. decrease as a project progresses through its life cycle.
b. increase as a project progresses through its life cycle.
c. stay constant throughout the project life cycle.
d. vary independently of where the project is in its life cycle.
79. Which one of the following best defines a benefit?
a. A positive result of stakeholder management.
b. The successful management of a project.
c. An improvement resulting from project deliverables.
d. The successful delivery of project reports and updates.
80. Which one of the following is true for the Project Management Plan (PMP)?
a. The Project Management Plan is developed by the project manager and team and owned by the sponsor.
b. A draft of the Project Management Plan is developed by the sponsor at the same time as the business case.
c. The Project Management Plan is developed by the sponsor and owned by the project manager.
d. The Project Management Plan is developed by the project manager and team and owned by the project manager.
81. Who are project team members primarily accountable to?
a. External stakeholders.
b. The end users.
c. The finance director.
d. The project manager.
82. The phases of a project life cycle are_____.
a. starting, planning, control and closing.
b. concept, definition, development, handover and closure.
c. initiation, definition, planning, monitoring and operations.
d. concept, definition, implementation and operations.
83. A portfolio can best be defined as_____.
a. a group of projects and programmes carried out within an organisation.
b. a group of programmes carried out under the sponsorship of an organisation.
c. a group of projects carried out under the sponsorship of an organisation.
d. a range of products and services offered by an organisation.
84. Which one of the following best describes project management?
a. Using APM’s Body of Knowledge 6th edition as a guide to all projects.
b. Employing a project manager who has undertaken similar projects.
c. Utilising team members who can work on a project full time.
d. Application of processes and methods throughout the project life cycle.
85. Which structure shows the reporting relationships and communications channels for a project?
a. Work Breakdown Structure.
b. Organisational Breakdown Structure.
c. Product Breakdown Structure.
d. Responsibility assignment structure.
86. From among the following activities, which is the best example of a project?
a. Processing insurance claims
b. Producing automobiles
c. Writing a term paper
d. Completing a college degree
e. All of these are good examples of projects
87. Which of the following constraints is not typically found in managing projects?
a. Time
b. People
c. Cost
d. Performance
e. Both b and d are not typical constraints
88. Which of the following choices is not one of the stages of a project life cycle?
a. Conceptualizing
b. Defining
c. Planning
d. Executing
e. Delivering
89. In which of the following stages are project objectives established, teams formed, and major responsibilities assigned?
a. Conceptualizing
b. Defining
c. Planning
d. Executing
e. Delivering
90. In which of the following stages is a major portion of the physical and mental project work performed?
a. Conceptualizing
b. Defining
c. Planning
d. Executing
e. Delivering
91. In which of the following stages are you more likely to find status reports, many changes, and the creation of forecasts?
a. Conceptualizing
b. Defining
c. Planning
d. Executing
e. Delivering
92. Which of the following characteristics is not typical of a project manager?
a. Managing a temporary activity
b. Possesses in-depth technical knowledge
c. Managing a non-repetitive activity
d. Manages independently of the formal organization
e. Provides a direct link to the customer
93. Which of the following choices is not one of the driving forces behind the increasing demand for project management?
a. Compression of the product life cycle
b. Knowledge explosion
c. Development of third world and closed economies
d. More emphasis on the product and less on the customer
e. Corporate downsizing
94. Which of the following statements is true?
a. Project management is becoming a standard way of doing business
b. Project management is increasingly contributing to achieving organizational strategies
c. Project management is being used at a consistent percentage of a firm's efforts
d. Both a and b are true
e. a, b, and c are all true
95. Project management is ideally suited for a business environment requiring all of the following except________.
a. Accountability
b. Flexibility
c. Innovation
d. Speed
e. Repeatability
96. Which of the following is the number one characteristic that is looked for in management candidates?
a. Overall intelligence
b. Works well with others
c. Experience
d. Past successes
e. Good references
97. A common rule of thumb in the world of high-tech product development is that a six-month project delay can result in a loss of product revenue share of ______ percent. The waste on failed projects and cost overruns is estimated in the neighborhood of
a. 10
b. 20
c. 33
d. 45
e. 50
98. The waste on failed projects and cost overruns is estimated in the neighborhood of_______.
a. Under $100 Million
b. Over $150 Billion
c. Under $10 Billion
d. Between $90-$100 Billion
e. Between $125-$135 Billion
99. Which of the following is the first step in developing a set of strategies designed to best meet the needs of customers?
a. Market Research
b. Define the Integrated Project Management System
c. Environmental Analysis
d. Project Selection
e. All of the above are correct
100. Integration of project management with the organization takes place with the______.
a. Master budget
b. Strategy plan
c. Process of managing actual projects
d. Both b and c are correct
e. a, b, and c are all correct
101. Two dimensions within the project management process are______.
a. Technical and sociocultural
b. Cost and time
c. Planned and unexpected
d. Established and new
e. Unique and reoccurring
102. Which of these is not part of the "technical dimension" of project management?
a. WBS
b. Budgets
c. Problem-solving
d. Schedules
e. Status reports
103. Which of these is not part of the "sociocultural dimension" of project management?
a. Negotiation
b. Resource allocation
c. Customer expectations
d. Leadership
e. Politics
104. Corporate downsizing has increased the trend toward________.
a. Reducing the number of projects a company initiates
b. Outsourcing significant segments of project work
c. Using dedicated project teams
d. Shorter project lead times
e. Longer project lead times
105. The importance of project management has increased due to_______.
a. The movement of manufacturing operations out of the U.S.
b. Time to market
c. The movement toward flatter and leaner organizations
d. Both a and b are true
e. a, b, and c are all true
106. Which of the following is not typically the responsibility of a project manger?
a. Meeting budget requirements
b. Meeting schedule requirements
c. Meeting performance specifications
d. Coordinates the actions of the team members
e. All of these are typical responsibilities
107. A series of coordinated, related, multiple projects that continue over extended time intended to achieve a goal is known as a________.
a. Strategy
b. Program
c. Campaign
d. Crusade
e. Venture
108. In which of the following stages is it determined what the project will entail, when it will be scheduled, whom it will benefit, and what the budget will be?
a. Conceptualizing
b. Defining
c. Planning
d. Executing
e. Delivering
109. Competing in a global market is influenced by_______.
a. Rapid change
b. Innovation
c. Time to market
d. Politics
e. a, b, and c are all true
110. Integration of all project processes and practices to improve Project Management is due to_______.
a. Centralization
b. Environmental analysis
c. Customer Expectations
d. Project management system
e. The organization's environment and culture
111. The textbook indicated that ________ is the major dimension of strategic management.
a. Responding to changes in the external market
b. Allocating scarce resources of the organization
c. Beating competition to the market
d. Both a and b are correct
e. Both a and c are correct
112. Which of the following is not true for strategic management?
a. It should be done once each year just before developing the operating plan
b. It supports consistency of action at every level of the organization
c. It develops an integrated and coordinated long-term plan of action
d. It positions the firm to meet the needs of its customers
e. All of these are true statements
113. Which of the following is the correct order for the strategic management process?
a. Strategies, mission, goals, projects
b. Goals, projects, mission, strategies
c. Mission, goals, strategies, projects
d. Goals, mission, strategies, projects
e. Projects, mission, strategies, goals
114. Which of the following questions does the organization's mission statement answer?
a. What are our long-term strategies?
b. What are our long-term goals and objectives?
c. How do we operate in the existing environment?
d. What do we want to become?
e. All of these are answered by the mission statement
115. Which of the following is not one of the traditional components found in mission statements?
a. Major products and services
b. Profitability
c. Target customers and markets
d. Geographic domain
e. Contribution to society
116. Which of the following is not one of the characteristics of effective objectives?
a. Realistic
b. Assignable
c. Flexible
d. Specific
e. Measurable
117. Strategy formulation includes which of the following activities?
a. Determining alternatives
b. Creating profitability targets
c. Evaluating alternatives
d. Both a and c are correct
e. a, b, and c are all correct
118. The assessment of the external and internal environments is called _______ analysis.
a. SWOT analysis
b. Competitive
c. Industry
d. Market
e. Strategic
119. Which of the following would not be classified as an organizational threat?
a. Slowing of the economy
b. A maturing life cycle
c. Poor product quality
d. Government regulations
e. All of these are organizational threats
120. Which of the following would not be classified as an organizational opportunity?
a. Increasing product demand
b. Excellent employees
c. Emerging markets
d. demographics
e. All of these are organizational opportunities
121. Which of the following is not one of the requirements for successful implementation of strategies through projects?
a. Allocation of resources
b. Prioritizing of projects
c. Motivation of project contributors
d. Adequate planning and control systems
e. All of these are requirements
122. Which of the following terms is often used to denote a project that a powerful, high ranking official is advocating?
a. Sacred cow
b. Pet project
c. Political necessity
d. Special undertaking
e. Strategic ploy
123. Susie's department is implementing many projects. She finds herself starting and stopping work on one task to go and work on another task, and then return to the work on the original task. Susie is experiencing________.
a. Poor scheduling
b. Excess work burden
c. Flexible tasking
d. Multitasking
e. Burnout
124. Project selection criteria are typically classified as______.
a. Financial and non-financial
b. Short-term and long-term
c. Strategic and tactical
d. Required and optional
e. Cost and schedule
125. Which of the following financial models are typically included in project selection?
a. Payback
b. Net present value
c. Internal rate of return
d. Both a and b are correct
e. a, b, and c are all correct
126. Projects are usually classified into all but one of the following categories. Which one is not one of the typical classifications?
a. Compliance and emergency
b. Operational
c. Strategic
d. Political necessity
e. All of these are typical classifications
127. Which of the following is not one of the classifications for assessing a project portfolio?
a. Sacred cow
b. Bread-and-butter
c. Pearls
d. Oysters
128. A project screening matrix typically contains all of the following except_______.
a. The list of available projects
b. Specific criteria
c. Weights assigned to specific criteria
d. Costs to complete each project
e. All of the above are typically contained
129. Which of the following is the reason(s) why project managers need to understand their organization's mission and strategy?
a. To make appropriate decisions and adjustments
b. To be effective project advocates
c. To be able to get their job done
d. Both a and b are correct
e. a, b, and c are all correct
E. White elephants
130. In the Snapshot from Practice, Intel's CEO has concentrated Intel's strategy toward?
a. Creating chips to support the digital device market
b. Eliminating AMD as a competitor
c. Strengthening Intel's position in the PC market
d. Expanding Intel's international market
e. Expand efforts in the mainframe computer market
131. Which of the following is not true of multi-weighted scoring models?
a. Will include quantitative criteria
b. Will include qualitative criteria
c. Each criterion is assigned a weight
d. Projects with higher scores are considered more desirable
e. All of the above are true
132. A major project proposal form will likely include all of the following except________.
a. Project Classification
b. Schedule objective
c. Major deliverables of the project
d. How success will be measured
e. All of these are likely to be included
133. Which of the following is a common multi criteria selection model?
a. Checklist
b. Net Present Value
c. Weighted criteria model
d. Both a and c are correct
e. All of these are common multi criteria selection models
134. Successful ________ requires strong links among mission statements, goals, objectives, and strategies.
a. strategic management
135. ________ change infrequently and may require revision only when the nature of the business changes or shifts.
a. Mission statements
136. ________ translate the organization's mission statement into specific, concrete, and measurable terms.
a. Objectives
137. ________ answers the question of how strategies will be realized, given available resources.
a. Implementation
138. Project ________ are typically high-ranking managers who endorse and lend political support for the completion of a specific project.
a. sponsors
139. A weighted scoring model such as _________ typically uses several weighted selection criteria to evaluate project proposals.
a. Project Screening Matrix
140. The __________ identifies what the organization wants to become and the scope of the firm in terms of its product or service.
a. mission statement
141. From 1994 to 2009 the trend for projects late or over budget was_____.
a. Significantly better
b. Slightly better
c. About the same
d. Slightly worse
e. Significantly worse
142. Like most organizational effort, the major goal of a project is to __________.
a. satisfy a customer's need
143. The initial stage in the Project Life Cycle is the __________ stage.
a. defining
144. The final stage in the Project Life Cycle is the __________ stage.
a. Closure
145. The __________, a professional organization for project managers, has grown from 93,000 in 2002 to more than 230,000 currently.
a. PMI
146. In the __________ stage of the Project Life Cycle a major part of the project work, both physical and mental, takes place.
a. Executing
147. In the _________ stage of the Project Life Cycle what will be accomplished by the project is determined along with the project's schedule and budget.
a. Planning
148. A common rule of thumb in the world of high-tech product development is that a six-month project delay can result in a __________ percent loss in product revenue share.
a. Thirty-three
149. The advent of many small projects has created the need for an organization that can support __________ management.
a. Multi project
150. Increased competition has placed a premium on customer satisfaction and the development of __________ products and services.
a. Customized
151. In some organizations, selection and management of projects often fail to support the broad-based _________ of the organization.
a. Strategic plan
152. WBS, schedules, and budgets are examples of the _________ dimension of the project management process.
a. Technical
153. Leadership, teamwork, and negotiation are examples of the _________ dimension of the project management process.
a. Sociocultural
154. The ________ is a professional organization for project management specialists.
a. Project Management Institute (PMI)
155. One of the defining characteristics of a project is that it has a singular purpose, i.e., an established ________.
a. Objective
156. Because projects have a defined beginning and end, the ________ is frequently used to manage the transition of a project from start to completion.
a. Project Life Cycle
157. The development of schedules, budgets, and identifying risks are common elements to the ________ stage of the project life cycle.
a. Planning
158. The establishment of project goals, specifications, and responsibilities usually occurs in the ________ stage of the project life cycle.
a. Defining
159. Training the customer, reassigning staff, and releasing resources occurs in the ________ stage of the project life cycle.
a. Closure
160. Project managers are expected to ensure that appropriate trade-offs are made between the time, cost, and __________ requirements of the project.
a. Performance
161. The growth in ________ has increased the complexity of projects because projects typically include the latest advances.
a. New knowledge
162. A _________ is a series of coordinated, related; multiple projects that continue over extended time intended to achieve a goal.
a. Program
163. In the __________ stage, it determined what the project will entail, when it will be scheduled, whom it will benefit, and what the budget will be.
a. Planning
164. Which of the follow is not one of the commonly heard comments of project managers?
a. Where did this project come from?
b. Why are we doing this project?
c. How can all these projects be first priority?
d. Why is this project so strongly linked to the strategic plan?
e. Where are we going to get the resources to do this project?
165. Strategy considered to be under purview of senior management is_______.
a. Old school thinking
b. A new school of management thought
c. Necessary in a company structure
d. Beneficial to the Project Manager
e. Depended on company goals
166. A critical factor to ensure the success of integrating the strategic plan with projects lies in a process that_______.
a. Is open and published for all participants to review
b. Starts with top management's directives
c. With projects first and integrates them with the strategic plan
d. Both b and c are correct
e. a, b, and c are all correct
167. The intended outcome of strategy/projects integration is______.
a. Clear organization focus
b. Best use of scare organization resources
c. Improved communication across projects and departments
d. Both a and c are correct
e. a, b, and c are all correct
168. Which of the following is a main reason why project managers need to understand their or
ganization's mission and strategy?
a. They can better focus on the immediate customer
b. They can make appropriate decisions and adjustments
c. So they can be effective project advocates
d. Both b and c are correct
e. a, b, and c are all correct
169. Project managers who do not understand the role that their project plays in accomplishing the organization's strategy tend to make all the following mistakes except:
a. Focusing on low priority problems
b. Overemphasizing technology as an end in and of itself
c. Focusing on the immediate customer
d. Trying to solve every customer issue
e. All the above are likely mistakes
170. In today's business environment, project managers find it valuable to have a keen understanding of________.
a. Strategic management
b. Technical issues
c. Project selection process
d. Both A and C are correct
e. A, B, and C are all correct
Defining project management
171. In a SWOT analysis, good product quality, low debt, and an established dealer network are examples of positive ________.
a. Strengths
172. In a SWOT analysis, strong competition, reduced product demand, and a maturing product life cycle are examples of ________.
a. Threats
173. The assessment of the internal and external environments is known as a ________.
a. SWOT analysis
174. Apple Computers has been successful in developing a turnaround strategy that has developed new markets and increased market share. This began with strict adherence to the ________.
a. Mission Statement
175. The term ________ is often used to denote a project that a powerful, high-ranking official is advocating.
a. Sacred cow
176. Xerox's ALTO computer and the Ford Mustang are examples of the significance that ________ can play in project management.
a. Politics
177. Capacity overload which inevitably leads to confusion and inefficient use of scarce resources is an __________.
a. implementation gap
178. The _______ financial model measures the time it will take to recover the project investment.
a. payback
179. The ________ financial model measures the current value of all cash inflows and outflows using management's minimum desired rate of return.
a. net present value (NPV)
180. In classifying the kinds of projects an organization has in its portfolio, ________ projects are typically those needed to meet regulatory conditions required to operate in a region.
a. compliance (must do)
181. In classifying the kinds of projects an organization has in its portfolio, ________ projects are typically those needed to support current operations.
a. operational
182. In classifying the kinds of projects an organization has in its portfolio, ________ projects are typically those that directly support the organization's long run mission.
a. strategic
183. Using the Project Portfolio Matrix, software upgrades and manufacturing cost reduction projects are examples of ________ projects that involve evolutionary improvements to existing products.
a. Bread-and-Butter
184. In some cases organizations will use a __________ to solicit ideas for projects when the knowledge requirements for the project are not available in the organization.
a. RFP (Request for Proposal)
185. A ___________ will typically include a list of potential projects, several criteria, weights for those criteria, and criteria scores for those projects.
a. Project Screening Matrix
186. The most common approach to selecting a project has been to use the __________ model.
a. Checklist
187. A selective outline of the project that ensures the identification of all tasks and an understanding of what is to be done is called a _______________.
a. work breakdown structure
188. The first step in planning any project is to ________.
a. define the project scope
189. The primary purpose of the first step of defining a project is to identify the ________ for the end user and to focus project plans.
a. objective
190. Significant events in a project that occur at a specific point in time, are natural control points, and are easily recognized by project participants are known as ___________.
a. Milestones
191. The need for a computer to function in countries having different electrical systems is an example of a ________.
a. technical requirement
192. The agreement that training will be the responsibility of the customer is an example of a project ________.
a. limit and exclusion
193. A project parameter such as completion date or cost is ________ if it is fixed and must be met.
a. constrained
194. Taking advantage of opportunities to reduce costs or accelerate the schedule are examples of project criteria being classified as ________.
a. enhance
195. In making project trade-offs, a criteria that is allowed to not meet the original target is classified as ________.
a. accept
196. Developing a ________ provides a forum for clearly establishing priorities with customers and top management so as to create shared expectations and avoid misunderstandings.
a. priority matrix
197. The result of subdividing the work of a project into smaller and smaller work elements is called ________.
a. work breakdown structure
198. The most detailed element in the hierarchical breakdown of the project work to be accomplished is known as the ________.
a. work package
199. A(n) ________ is a grouping of work packages for monitoring progress and responsibility.
a. cost account
200. Practice suggests that a work package should not exceed ________ workdays or one reporting period.
a. ten
201. The process of assigning specific work packages to a particular group or person within the organization is called ________.
a. organization breakdown structure
202. In a work breakdown structure the ________ is the focal point because all budgets, work assignments, time, cost, and technical performance come together at that point.
a. cost account
203. Once the __________ has been established, it is the basis for making trade-off decisions later in the project.
a. Priority Matrix
204. The ________ summarizes, in graphic format, the tasks to be accomplished and who is responsible for what on a given project.
a. responsibility matrix
205. The Work Breakdown Structure is an outline of the project with different levels of __________.
a. detail
206. The purposes of the ____________ are to provide a framework to summarize organization unit work performance, identify organization units responsible for work packages, and tie the organizational unit to cost control accounts.
a. OBS (Organization Breakdown Structure)
207. The most commonly used method for coding the WBS is __________.
a. numeric indention
208. The gradual expansion of project requirements during the execution of project is known as __________.
a. scope creep
Managing Risk of project management
209. An uncertain event or condition that, if it occurs, has a positive or negative effect on a project objective is termed.
A. Random chance
B. A disaster
C. Risk
D. Hazard
E. Bad luck
210. The chances of a risk event occurring as a project proceeds through its life cycle tends to______.
A. Slowly rise
B. Drop sharply and then level out
C. Rise sharply and then level out
D. Remain about the same
E. Slowly drop
211. The cost impact of a risk event occurring as a project proceeds through its life cycle tends to_____.
A. Slowly rise
B. Drop sharply and then level out
C. Rise sharply and then level out
D. Remain about the same
E. Slowly drop
212. The attempt to recognize and manage potential and unforeseen trouble spots that may occur when a project is implemented is known as________.
A. Risk forecasting
B. Risk management
C. Contingency planning
D. Scenario analysis
E. Disaster protection
213. Which of the following is not one of the steps in the risk management process?
A. Risk response development
B. Risk assessment
C. Risk identification
D. Risk tracking
E. Risk response control
214. The initial step in the risk management process is to_______.
A. Determine the level of acceptable risk
B. Assess the risk potential
C. Identify the risks
D. Set aside budget funds for managing the risks
E. Appoint a risk manager
215. One common mistake made early in the risk identification process is to______.
A. Not all possibilities are considered
B. Participants are over-optimistic
C. Participants are over-pessimistic
D. Focus on objectives and not on the events that could produce consequences.
E. Too much attention is given to past events
216. In the beginning the focus of risk management should be on risks that______.
A. Impact the whole project
B. Impact the critical path
C. Are known
D. Have the greatest cost impact
E. Have the greatest schedule impact
217. The 1999 NASA Mars Climate Orbiter is an example of______.
A. Disaster avoidance through proactive risk management
B. Murphy's Law
C. Proper use of critical thinking
D. Mismanaged risk control
E. Using historical records to assess risk
218. Which of the following would not be considered a threat?
A. Inflation
B. Meeting the project schedule
C. International disruptions
D. Economic conditions
E. Competition
219. A list of questions that address traditional areas of uncertainty on a project is termed a risk______.
A. Risk profile
B. Questionnaire
C. Research
D. Query
E. Checklist
220. Which of the following is typically included in risk profiles?
A. Management aspects
B. Market aspects
C. Technical aspects
D. Both A and C are included
E. A, B, and C are all included
221. All of the following are included in the risk identification process except______.
A. Customers
B. Subcontractors
C. Competitors
D. Vendors
E. None of these are included
222. One of the keys to success in risk identification is_____.
A. Critical thinking
B. Optimism
C. Pessimism
D. A "can do" attitude
E. All of these are correct
223. The easiest and most commonly used technique for analyzing risks is _____ analysis.
A. Probability
B. Scenario
C. Payback
D. Risk/reward
E. Impact
224. A risk profile is a list of questions that address traditional areas of uncertainty on a project that answers developed from_______.
A. When the event might occur in the project
B. Chances of the event occurring
C. Interaction with other parts of the project or with other projects
D. From previous, similar projects
E. Magnitude or severity of the event's impact
225. The risk management tool that is divided into three color-coded zones representing major, moderate, and minor risks is the risk______.
A. Assessment form
B. Responsibility matrix
C. Scenario assessment
D. Impact assessment
E. Risk severity matrix
226. The risk assessment form contains all of the following except________.
A. Likelihood of the risk event occurring
B. Potential impact of the risk event
C. Who will detect the occurrence of the risk event.
D. Difficulty of detecting the occurrence of the risk event
E. When the risk event may occur
227. The two scales of a risk severity matrix measure________.
A. Time, cost
B. Cost, schedule
C. Impact, cost
D. Time, impact
E. Likelihood, impact
228. Which of the following is not one of the probability analysis tools?
A. Ratio/range analysis
B. Decision tree
C. PERT simulation
D. PERT
E. All of these are probability analysis tools
229. This risk assessment tool is a variation of the risk severity matrix that includes the ease of detection for each of the identified risks.
A. PERT simulation
B. FMEA analysis
C. Ratio/range analysis
D. Probability analysis
E. Semi-quantitative analysis
230. Which of the following is not included in a Failure Mode and Effects Analysis?
A. Impact
B. Probability
C. Detection
D. Risk value
E. All of these are included
231. Which of the following is used to review activity and project risk?
A. NPV
B. S-curves
C. PERT
D. Decision trees
E. All of these can be used
232. Which of the following is not one of the potential responses to a specific risk event?
A. Mitigating
B. Retaining
C. Ignoring
D. Transferring
E. Sharing
233. A Risk Response Matrix contains all of the following except________.
A. Contingency plan
B. Trigger
C. Who is responsible?
D. Response
E. All of these are included in the matrix
234. The demolition of the Seattle Kingdome (Snapshot from Practice) is an example of which of the following?
A. Mitigating
B. Retaining
C. Ignoring
D. Transferring
E. Sharing
235. The risk associated with one of the key members being stuck by lightning would most likely be handled by which of the following?
A. Mitigating
B. Retaining
C. Ignoring
D. Transferring
E. Sharing
236. Funds that are for identified risks that have a low probability of occurring and that decrease as the project progresses are called ______ reserves.
A. Management
B. Budget
C. Contingency
D. Padded
E. Just in case
237. Technical risks are______.
A. Can often be the kind that cause the project to be shut down.
B. Problematic
C. Imposed duration dates
D. Both A and B are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct
238. Detailing all identified risks, including descriptions, category, and probability of occurring, impact, responses, contingency plans, owners and current status is called______.
A. Management reserves
B. Change control
C. Contingency reserves
D. Risk register
E. Risk profiles
239. Which of the following is identified to cover major unforeseen risks and, hence, are applied to the total project?
A. Budget reserves
B. Management reserves
C. Time buffers
D. Both B and C are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct
240. Change management systems are designed to accomplish all of the following except_______.
A. Track all changes that are to be implemented
B. Review, evaluates, and approve/disapprove proposed changes formally
C. Identify expected effects of proposed changes on schedule and budget
D. Reflect scope changes in baseline and performance measures
E. All of the above are correct
241. The ________ impact of a risk event in a project is less if the event occurs earlier rather than later.
a. cost
242. The likelihood of a risk event occurring ________ as a project goes through its life cycle.
a. decreases
243. The first step in the Risk Management process is ________.
a. risk identification
244. Risk events such as inflation, market acceptance, and government regulations are referred to as ________.
a. threats
245. A ________ is a list of questions that address traditional areas of uncertainty on a project.
a. risk profile
246. The easiest and most commonly used technique for analyzing risks is ________.
a. scenario analysis
247. The ________ form identifies each risk event, the likelihood of it occurring, the potential impact, when it may occur, and the degree of difficulty in detecting it.
a. risk assessment
248. The ________ matrix is divided into red, yellow, and green zones representing major, moderate, and minor risks.
a. risk severity
249. The vertical scale on the Risk Severity Matrix measures the _________ of a potential risk event.
a. likelihood
250. The horizontal scale on the Risk Severity Matrix measures the _________ of a potential risk event.
a. impact
251. In __________ the Risk Severity Matrix is extended by including the ease of detecting a risk event occurring.
a. Failure Mote and Effects Analysis (FMEA)
252. In a ________, three different estimates of activity times are used to statistically predict the time an activity will take to complete.
a. probability analysis
253. The "Snapshot from Practice" case where Ellipsus Systems developed parallel prototype systems (WAP and JAVA) is an example of _________ a risk.
a. avoiding
254. Testing a new project on a smaller isolated area prior to installing it for the entire organization is an example of ________ a risk.
a. mitigating
255. Performance bonds, warranties, and insurance are examples of ________ a risk.
a. transferring
256. When the entertainment industry formed a consortium to define a common operating format for DVD it was ________ the risk.
a. sharing
257. If a risk event is very unlikely to occur the project owner would probably ________ the risk.
a. retain
258. A ________ identifies what to do if a potential risk event actually occurs.
a. risk response matrix
259. ________ reserves are identified for specific work packages and cover risks that have a low probability of occurring.
a. Budget
260. ________ reserves are controlled by the project manager and used to cover major unforeseen risks to the entire project.
a. Management
261. A ____________ is an alternative that will be used if a possible foreseen risk event becomes a reality.
a. contingency plan
262. A ____________ is useful for summarizing how the project team plans to manage risks that have been identified.
a. Risk Response Matrix
Modern Project Management
263. A professional organization for project management specialists is the__________.
A. PMI.
B. AMA.
C. MIS.
D. IPM.
E. PMBOK.
264. Which of the following is NOT considered to be a characteristic of a project?
A. An established objective
B. A clear beginning and end
C. Specific time, cost and performance requirements
D. For internal use only
E. Something been never done before
265. Which of the following activities is NOT considered a project?
A. Developing a new software program
B. Designing a space station
C. Preparing the site for the Olympic Games
D. Production of automobile tires
E. Developing a new advertising program
266. Which of the following activities is the best example of a project?
A. Processing insurance claims
B. Producing automobiles
C. Writing a policy manual
D. Monitoring product quality
E. Overseeing customer requests
267. Which of the following is NOT one of the stages of a project life cycle?
A. Identifying
B. Defining
C. Planning
D. Executing
E. Closing
268. In the _____________ stage of the project life cycle, project objectives are established, teams are formed, and major responsibilities are assigned.
A. Identifying
B. Defining
C. Planning
D. Executing
E. Closing
269. In the _____________ stage of the project life cycle, a major portion of the physical project work performed.
A. Identifying
B. Defining
C. Planning
D. Executing
E. Closing
270. In the _____________ stage of the project life cycle you are more likely to find status reports, changes, and the creation of forecasts.
A. Identifying
B. Defining
C. Planning
D. Executing
E. Closing
271. In the _____________ stage of the project life cycle the project's schedule and budget will be determined.
A. Identifying
B. Defining
C. Planning
D. Executing
E. Closing
272. In the _____________ stage of the project life cycle project the product is delivered to the customer and resources are reassigned.
A. Identifying
B. Defining
C. Planning
D. Executing
E. Closing
273. Which of the following is NOT typical of a project manager?
A. Managing a temporary activity
B. Overseeing existing operations
C. Managing a nonrepetitive activity
D. Responsible for time, cost and performance trade-offs
E. Work with a group of outsiders, including vendors and suppliers
274. Which of the following is NOT one of the driving forces behind the increasing demand for project management?
A. Compression of the product life cycle
B. Knowledge explosion
C. Increasing need for multi project management
D. Declining need for product customization
E. More sustainable business practices
275. Project management is ideally suited for a business environment requiring all of the following EXCEPT____.
A. Accountability.
B. Flexibility.
C. Innovation.
D. Speed.
E. Repeatability.
276. Which dimension of project management centers on creating a temporary social system within a larger organizational environment that combines the talents of a divergent set of professionals working to complete the project?
A. Communication
B. Sociocultural
C. Social
D. Technical
E. Scheduling
277. Which of the following statements is true?
A. Project management is far from a standard way of doing business
B. Project management is increasingly contributing to achieving organizational strategies
C. Project management is being used at a consistent percentage of a firm's efforts
D. Project management is a specialty that few organizations have access to
E. All of these statements are false
278. Project management is important to understand when people are a part of a project team because they______.
A. Work with others to create a schedule and budget.
B. Need to understand project priorities, so they can make independent decisions.
C. Need to be able to monitor and report project progress.
D. Need to understand the project charter or scope statement that defines the objectives and parameters of the project.
E. All of these are reasons it is important for project team members to understand project management.
279. Project governance does NOT include_________.
A. Setting standards for project selection.
B. Overseeing project management activities.
C. Centralization of project processes and practices.
D. Options for continuous improvement.
E. Allowing project managers to plan the project the way they see fit.
280. Projects should align with the organization's overall strategy in order to________.
A. Complete the project safely.
B. Reduce waste of scarce resources.
C. Ensure customer satisfaction.
D. Secure funding.
E. None of these are reasons why projects should align with the organization's overall strategy.
281. Two dimensions within the project management process are__________.
A. Technical and sociocultural.
B. Cost and time.
C. Planned and unexpected.
D. Established and new.
E. Unique and reoccurring.
282. Which of these is NOT part of the "technical dimension" of project management?
A. WBS
B. Budgets
C. Problem-solving
D. Schedules
E. Status reports
283. Which of these is NOT part of the "sociocultural dimension" of project management?
A. Negotiation
B. Resource allocation
C. Managing customer expectations
D. Leadership
E. Dealing with politics
284. Corporate downsizing has increased the trend toward________.
A. Reducing the number of projects a company initiates.
B. Outsourcing significant segments of project work.
C. Using dedicated project teams.
D. Shorter project lead times.
E. Longer project lead times.
285. Which of the following is NOT a reason why project management has become a standard way of doing business?
A. Increased need for skilled management of stakeholders outside of organization
B. Projects need to be done faster
C. Organizations are doing more project work in-house instead of outsourcing
D. Organizations are executing more and more projects
E. Increased product complexity and innovation
286. Which of the following is typically the responsibility of a project manager?
A. Meeting budget requirements
B. Meeting schedule requirements
C. Meeting performance specifications
D. Coordinating the actions of the team members
E. All of these are typical responsibilities
287. A series of coordinated, related, multiple projects that continue over an extended time period and are intended to achieve a goal is known as a
A. Strategy.
B. Program.
C. Campaign.
D. Crusade.
E. Venture.
288. Which of the following is NOT true about project management?
A. It is not limited to the private sector
B. Many opportunities are available for individuals interested in this career path
C. It improves one's ability to plan, implement and manage activities to accomplish specific organizational objectives
D. It focuses primarily on technical processes
E. It is a set of tools
289. As the number of small projects increase within an organization's portfolio, what is a challenge an organization faces?
A. Sharing resources
B. Measuring efficiency
C. Managing risk
D. Prioritizing projects
E. All of these are challenges
290. Governance of all project management processes and procedures helps provide senior management with all of the following EXCEPT_____.
A. A method to ensure projects that are important to senior management are being implemented
B. An assessment of the risk their portfolio of projects represents
C. An overview of all project management activities
D. A metric to measure the improvement of managing projects relative to others in the industry
E. A big picture of how organizational resources are being used
291. Which of the following is a good example of a program?
A. Planting a garden
B. Developing a new residential area that includes six custom homes
C. Developing a new marketing plan
D. Taking notes of each class meeting to prepare for the final
E. Planning a wedding
292. Which of the following represents the correct order of stages within the project life cycle?
A. Planning, Defining, Executing, Closing
B. Closing, Planning, Defining, Executing
C. Defining, Planning, Executing, Closing
D. Executing, Defining, Planning, Closing
E. Planning, Defining, Closing, Executing
293. Project management is not limited to the __________ sector.
a. private
294. The initial stage in the project life cycle is the __________ stage.
a. defining
295. The final stage in the project life cycle is the __________ stage.
a. closing
296. A professional organization for project managers that has grown from 93,000 in 2002 to more than 520,000 currently is the ___________.
a. PMI
297. A major part of the project work, both physical and mental, takes place in the ___________ stage of the project life cycle.
a. executing
298. The project's schedule and budget will be determined in the ___________ stage of the project life cycle.
a. planning
299. A temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, service, or result is a(n) _________.
a. project
300. In today's high-tech industries the product life cycle is averaging _________ to 3 years.
a. 6 months
301. The advent of many small projects has created the need for an organization that can support __________ management.
a. multi project
302. Increased competition has placed a premium on customer satisfaction and the development of __________ products and services.
a. customized
303. In some organizations, selection and management of projects often fail to support the overall _________ of the organization.
a. strategic plan
304. WBS, schedules, and budgets are examples of the _________ dimension of the project management process.
a. technical
305. Leadership, teamwork, and negotiation are examples of the _________ dimension of the project management process.
a. sociocultural
306. A professional organization for project management specialists is the ___________.
a. Project Management Institute (PMI)
307. One of the defining characteristics of a project is that it has a singular purpose, i.e., an established ________.
a. objective
308. Because projects have a defined beginning and end, the ________ is frequently used to manage the transitions of a project from start to completion.
a. project life cycle
309. The _____________ typically passes sequentially through four stages.
a. project life cycle
310. The establishment of project goals, specifications, and responsibilities usually occurs in the ________ stage of the project life cycle.
a. defining
311. Training the customer, reassigning staff, and releasing resources occurs in the ________ stage of the project life cycle.
a. closing
312. Project managers are expected to ensure that appropriate trade-offs are made between the time, cost, and __________ requirements of the project.
a. performance
313. An increase in the complexity of projects, because projects typically include the latest advances, can be the result of a growth in new __________.
a. knowledge
314. A(n) _________ is a series of coordinated, related multiple projects that continue over an extended time intended to achieve a goal.
a. program
315. Applying a set of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to a collection of projects in order to move the organization toward its strategic goals is known as project ____________.
a. governance
Organization Strategy and Project Selection
316. Which of the following is NOT true about an organization's strategy?
A. Strategy determines how an organization will compete
B. Strategy is implemented through projects
C. Only top management must understand strategy
D. Project selection should be clearly aligned with strategy
E. Project management plays a key role in supporting strategy
317. A project selection process that is strongly linked to strategy results in_________.
A. The most profit.
B. Better utilization of the organization's resources.
C. More projects.
D. A larger and more diverse organization.
E. Stronger core competencies.
318. Which of the following is NOT true about organizational politics?
A. Project managers should not engage in organizational politics
B. Politics can have a significant influence on which projects receive funding
C. Politics exist in every organization
D. Politics can influence project selection
E. Politics can play a role in the aspirations behind projects
319. Which of the following terms is often used to denote a project that a powerful, high-ranking official is advocating?
A. Sacred cow
B. Pet project
C. Political necessity
D. Special undertaking
E. Strategic ploy
320. Why do project managers need to understand their organization's mission and strategy?
A. To reduce project duration and increase the number of projects implemented
B. So they can make appropriate decisions and adjustments and be effective project advocates
C. It is only important for senior management to understand the organization's mission and strategy
D. To get their job done and increase opportunities for promotion
E. So that they can make sure the customer is satisfied
321. Project managers who understand the role that their project plays in accomplishing the organization's strategy are able to do all of the following EXCEPT
A. Demonstrate to senior management how their project contributes to the firm's mission.
B. Explain to team members why certain project objectives and priorities are critical.
C. Explain to stakeholders why certain project objectives and priorities are critical.
D. Be able to respond appropriately to delays and/or questions about product design.
E. Be able to focus on problems or solutions, even if the project is a low priority strategically.
322. All of the following are symptoms of organizations struggling with strategy disconnect and unclear priorities EXCEPT
A. Frequent conflicts between managers.
B. Inadequate resources.
C. Confused employees regarding which projects are more important.
D. Not enough projects within the portfolio to make a profit.
E. People are working on multiple projects and feel inefficient.
323. Which of the following problems refers to lack of understanding and consensus of organization strategy among top and middle-level managers? This also can result when top management formulates strategy and leaves implementation to functional managers.
A. Multitasking
B. Organization politics
C. Implementation gap
D. Resource conflicts
E. Employee turnover
324. Which of the following is NOT true for strategic management?
A. It should be done once every few years just before developing the operating plan
B. It supports consistency of action at every level of the organization
C. It develops an integrated and coordinated long-term plan of action
D. It positions the firm to meet the needs of its customers
E. It involves responding to changes in the external market and allocating scarce resources to improve a competitive position
325. Which of the following is the correct order for the strategic management process?
A. Strategies, mission, objectives, projects
B. Objectives, projects, mission, strategies
C. Mission, strategies, objectives, projects
D. Objectives, mission, strategies, projects
E. Projects, mission, strategies, objectives
326. Which of the following questions does the organization's mission statement answer?
A. What are our long-term strategies?
B. What are our long-term goals and objectives?
C. How do we operate in the existing environment?
D. What do we want to become?
E. All of these are answered by the mission statement
327. Which of the following is NOT one of the traditional components found in mission statements?
A. Major products and services
B. Profitability
C. Target customers and markets
D. Geographic domain
E. Contribution to society
328. Which of the following is NOT one of the characteristics of effective objectives?
A. Realistic
B. Assignable
C. Flexible
D. Specific
E. Measurable
329. In order to formulate strategies that align with the mission the organization will need to______.
A. Assess internal strengths and weaknesses.
B. Analyze competitors.
C. Examine the external environment.
D. Know their core competencies.
E. All of these should be considered when formulating strategies.
330. The assessment of the external and internal environments is called _______ analysis.
A. SWOT
B. Competitive
C. Industry
D. Market
E. Strategic
331. Which of the following would be classified as an organizational threat?
A. Slowing of the economy
B. Excellent employees
C. Poor product quality
D. Declining facilities
E. High labor costs
332. Which of the following would be classified as an organizational opportunity?
A. Low debt
B. Excellent employees
C. Increasing product demand
D. Talented management
E. Government regulation
333. Which of the following is NOT one of the requirements for successful implementation of strategies through projects?
A. Allocation of resources
B. Prioritizing of projects
C. Motivation of project contributors
D. Adequate planning and control systems
E. Quality management
334. Which of the following is NOT a problem associated with the absence of a project portfolio system?
A. Organizational politics
B. Lack of funding
C. Resource conflicts
D. Multitasking
E. Implementation gap
335. Susie's department is implementing many projects. She finds herself starting and stopping work on one task to go and work on another task, and then return to the work on the original task. Susie is experiencing__________.
A. Poor scheduling.
B. Excess work burden.
C. Flexible tasking.
D. Multitasking.
E. Burnout.
336. Project selection criteria are typically classified as_________.
A. Financial and nonfinancial.
B. Short-term and long-term.
C. Strategic and tactical.
D. Required and optional.
E. Cost and schedule.
337. The __________ financial model measures the current value of all cash inflows using management's minimum desired rate of return.
A. FUBAR
B. ARR
C. IRS
D. IRB
E. None of these
338. Projects are usually classified into all but one of the following categories. Which one is NOT one of the typical classifications?
A. Compliance and emergency
B. Operational
C. Strategic
D. Political necessity
E. All of these are typical classifications
339. One who endorses and lends political support for the completion of a specific project is known as the_______.
A. Project manager.
B. CEO.
C. Project sponsor.
D. Project lead.
E. Sacred cow.
340. A project screening matrix typically contains all of the following EXCEPT
A. The list of available projects
B. Specific criteria
C. Weights assigned to specific criteria
D. Costs to complete each project
E. All of these are typically contained
341. Regardless of the criteria differences among different types of projects, the most important criterion for project selection is________.
A. How the project will balance risk within the project portfolio
B. The project's fit to the organization strategy
C. Compliance
D. Nonfinancial
E. Profit
342. Examples of nonfinancial criteria include all of the following EXCEPT
A. Capturing a larger market share.
B. Reducing dependency on unreliable suppliers.
C. Preventing government intervention and regulation.
D. Making it difficult for competitors to enter the market.
E. Calculating the time it will take to recover the project investment.
343. Which of the following is true of multi weighted scoring models?
A. Will include quantitative criteria
B. Will include qualitative criteria
C. Each criterion is assigned a weight
D. Projects with higher scores are considered more desirable
E. All of these are true
344. Which of the following is NOT true when managing a portfolio system?
A. The qualities of a particular project are assessed within the context of existing projects
B. It does not require a constant effort
C. Within a small organization it can be managed by a small group of key employees
D. It requires input from senior management
E. It involves monitoring and adjusting criteria to reflect the strategic focus of the organization
345. The following are responsibilities of the governance team when managing a portfolio system EXCEPT
A. Deciding how they wish to balance the available organizational resources among the different types of projects.
B. Publishing the priority of every project and ensuring the process is open and free of power politics.
C. Evaluating the progress of the projects in the portfolio.
D. Constant scanning of the external environment to determine if organizational selection criteria need to be changed.
E. Communicating which projects are approved.
346. The process of assessing "what we are" and deciding and implementing "what we intend to be and how we are going to get there" is ______________.
a. strategic management
347. ________ change infrequently and may require revision only when the nature of the business changes or shifts.
a. Mission statements
348. ________ translate the organization's strategy into specific, concrete, and measurable terms.
a. Objectives
349. How strategies will be realized, given available resources, is answered through __________.
a. implementation
350. High-ranking managers who endorse and lend political support for the completion of a specific project are known as project _________.
a. sponsors
351. A weighted scoring model typically uses several weighted selection criteria to evaluate project proposals. An example of this would be a(n) ____________.
a. project screening matrix
352. What the organization wants to become and the scope of the firm in terms of its product or service would be identified in the organization's ____________.
a. mission statement
353. In a SWOT analysis, good product quality, low debt, and an established supplier network are examples of internal ________.
a. strengths
354. In a SWOT analysis, strong competition, reduced product demand, and a maturing product life cycle are examples of external __________.
a. threats
355. The assessment of the internal and external environments is known as a(n) ________.
a. SWOT analysis
356. Strategy is implemented through ________.
a. projects
357. A project that a powerful, high-ranking official is advocating is often termed a(n) ___________.
a. sacred cow
358. Starting and stopping work on one task to go and work on another project, and then returning to work on the original task is known as ___________.
a. multitasking
359. The lack of understanding and consensus of organization strategy among top and middle-level managers is known as the __________.
a. implementation gap
360. The financial model that measures the time it will take to recover the project investment is the __________ model.
a. payback
361. The financial model that measures the current value of all cash inflows and outflows using management's minimum desired rate of return is known as the _________ model.
a. net present value (NPV)
362. In classifying the kinds of projects an organization has in its portfolio, projects that are typically those needed to meet regulatory conditions required to operate in a region are ___________ projects.
a. compliance
363. In classifying the kinds of projects an organization has in its portfolio, projects that are typically needed to support current operations are _________ projects.
a. operational
364. In classifying the kinds of projects an organization has in its portfolio, projects that directly support the organization's long-term mission are ________ projects.
a. strategic
365. When considering criteria used to select projects, capturing a larger market share or reducing the dependency on unreliable suppliers would both be examples of __________ criteria.
a. nonfinancial
366. In some cases organizations will use a(n) __________ to solicit ideas for projects when the knowledge requirements for the project are not available in the organization.
a. RFP (Request for Proposal)
367. A list of potential projects, several criteria, weights for those criteria, and criteria scores for those projects are all typically included on a(n) ___________ matrix.
a. project screening
368. __________ the portfolio system involves monitoring and adjusting selection criteria to reflect the strategic focus of the organization.
a. Managing
Leadership: Being an Effective Project Manager
369. Project success or failure often depends upon the contributions of all of the following except_______.
A. Customers
B. Suppliers
C. Contractors
D. Competitors
E. Top management
370. Project leadership is about coping with_________.
A. Formulating plans and objectives
B. Monitoring results against plans
C. Change
D. Taking corrective action when necessary
E. All of these are part of leadership
371. The difference between project management and project leadership is that project management includes_______.
A. Recognizing the need to alter direction
B. Aligning people to meet new directions
C. Monitoring results against plans
D. Motivating people to meet new objectives
E. All of these are leadership functions
372. Well-defined projects that encounter no significant surprises require little_______.
A. Management
B. Leadership
C. Monitoring
D. Corrective action
E. All of these are only required to a minor extent
373. Which of the following requires more management rather than leadership?
A. Taking corrective action
B. Changes in project scope
C. Technological stalemates
D. Breakdowns in coordination between people
E. All of these require the same level of management
374. In conducting meetings an effective project manager will take the role of a____.
A. Parliamentarian
B. Master of ceremonies
C. Conductor
D. Cattle herder
E. Teacher
375. Project managers often find themselves negotiating with all the following except_____.
A. Vendors
B. Functional managers
C. Consultants
D. Competitors
E. All of these are correct
376. Groups such as human resources, information systems, purchasing agents, and maintenance are typically classified as_______.
A. Project managers
B. Administrative support
C. Functional managers
D. Project sponsors
E. Customers
377. The closest relationships in a project network of relationships are with_____.
A. Other project managers
B. Project sponsors
C. Top management
D. Customers
E. Project team members
378. The second ring in the network of relationships for project managers includes all of the following except_______.
A. Other project managers
B. Customers
C. Functional managers
D. Top management
E. Project sponsors
379. The outer ring in the network of relationships for project managers includes all of the following except_____.
A. Other organizations
B. Customers
C. Contractors
D. Government agencies
E. Administrative support
380. The old-fashion view of managing projects emphasized which of the following?
A. Planning
B. Directing
C. Controlling
D. Both B and C are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct
381. The new perspective of project management emphasizes which of the following?
A. Financial control
B. Managing project stakeholders
C. Schedule/cost trade-offs
D. Both A and B are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct
382. Networks are mutually beneficial alliances that are generally governed by the law of____.
A. Supply-demand
B. Brooks's law
C. Reciprocity
D. A squeaky wheel
E. Risk-reward
383. In terms of commonly traded organizational currencies, vision, excellence, and ethical correctness are part of ______ related currencies.
A. Task
B. Position
C. Inspiration
D. Relationship
E. Personal
384. In terms of commonly traded organizational currencies, resources, assistance, cooperation, and information are part of ______ related currencies.
A. Task
B. Position
C. Inspiration
D. Relationship
E. Personal
385. In terms of commonly traded organizational currencies, acceptance, personal support, and understanding are part of _______ related currencies.
A. Task
B. Position
C. Inspiration
D. Relationship
E. Personal
386. In terms of commonly traded organizational currencies, advancement, recognition, visibility, and networks are part of ______ related currencies.
A. Task
B. Position
C. Inspiration
D. Relationship
E. Personal
387. In terms of commonly traded organizational currencies, learning, ownership, and gratitude are part of ______ related currencies.
A. Task
B. Position
C. Inspiration
D. Relationship
E. Personal
388. In mapping dependencies for a project, the project manager should______.
A. Overestimate
B. Underestimate
C. Precisely estimate
D. Either B or C are correct
E. None of these are correct
389. Which of the following is used at Hewlett-Packard for building relationships with key players that will determine a project's success?
A. MBO
B. MBA
C. GIGO
D. MBWA
E. PMI
390. In the Snapshot from Practice "Managing Expectations", one of the key aspects to project success was stated to be the managing of stakeholder________.
A. Relations
B. Expectations
C. Involvement
D. Influence
E. Input
391. In the Research Highlight, Ancona and Caldwell identified key patterns of activity which contribute to creating a high performance team. Which of the following is not one of those?
A. Negotiator
B. Ambassador
C. Task coordinator
D. Scouts
E. Guard
392. Which of the following is not one of the aspects of leading by example?
A. Priorities
B. Ethics
C. Urgency
D. Cooperation
E. Power
393. The traits of successful project managers include all of the following except________.
A. Pessimist
B. Proactive
C. Skillful politician
D. Effective time management
E. Personal integrity
394. Unlike project leadership, project management is about coping with_______.
A. Change
B. Aligning people to any new directions
C. Monitoring results against plans
D. Recognizing the need to alter plans
E. All of these are part of project management
395. In a survey of project managers, approximately what percentage reported that they encountered ethical issues in their work?
A. 22 percent
B. 40 percent
C. 65 percent
D. 81 percent
E. 100 percent
396. The key to exercising influence is_____.
A. To make few mistakes
B. To build trust
C. To build a network of top level people
D. To understand the political connections within the organization
E. To make friends with everyone
397. Which of the following is not one of the distinguishing traits of character?
A. Openness
B. Consistency
C. Empathetic
D. Sense of purpose
E. Hard work
398. Which of the following would be defined as the ability or skill to perceive, assess and manage the emotions of one's self and others?
A. Emotional stability
B. Coolness under pressure
C. Emotional intelligence
D. Empathy
E. Management sensitivity
399. Management is about coping with complexity; ________ is about coping with change.
a. leadership
400. A popular metaphor for the role of a project manager is that of ________.
a.conductor
401. ________ naturally compete with each other for resources and the support of top management.
a. Project managers
402. ________ champion the project and uses their influence to gain approval of the project.
a. Project sponsors
403. ________ define the scope of the project, and ultimate project success rests in their satisfaction.
a. Customers
404. Networks are mutually beneficial alliances that are generally governed by the law of ________.
a. reciprocity
405. In the organizational currency of _______ related influence comes directly from the project manager's ability to contribute to others accomplishing their work.
a. task
406. In the organizational currency of _______ related influence comes directly from the project manager's ability to enhance others' positions within the organization.
a. position
407. Perhaps the most powerful form of organization currency is based upon ________.
a. inspiration
408. The essence of the ________ related form of organization currency is forming a relationship that transcends normal professional boundaries and extends into the realm of friendship.
a. relationship
409. The ______ related form of organization currency deals with individual needs and an overriding sense of self-esteem.
a. personal
410. In building a social network it is always better to ________ the dependencies on which the success of a project is based.
a. overestimate
411. In the ________ style of management, managers spend the majority of their time outside their offices.
a. management by wandering around (MBWA)
412. All stakeholders have ________ about the schedule, cost, and project benefits that the project manager needs to listen for, understand, and manage.
a. expectations
413. Research consistently points out that project success is strongly affected by the degree to which a project has the support of ______.
a. top management
414. The Ancona and Caldwell research identified ________ activities as aimed at representing the team to others and protecting the team from interference.
a. ambassador
415. The Ancon and Caldwell research identified ________ activities as those where the manager goes out from the team to bring back information about what else is going on in the organization.
a. scout
416. In the ________ management style, the project manager's behavior symbolizes how other people should work on the project.
a. leading by example
417. In a survey of project managers, 81 percent reported that they encounter ________ issues in their work.
a. ethical
418. Successful project managers not only need to be influential, they also need to exercise influence in a manner that builds and sustains the ________ of others.
a. trust
Module 1
|
419. |
The project takes shape during the -------------------- phase |
|
A |
implementation |
|
B |
planning |
|
C |
initiation |
|
D |
closure |
|
420. |
A project can only be successful when there is no conflict between the
………………… and the local populace. |
|
A |
sponsor |
|
B |
workers |
|
C |
manager |
|
D |
management |
|
421. |
Senior members of the project team must be |
|
A |
politically sensitive |
|
B |
active |
|
C |
dynamic |
|
D |
decision makers |
|
422. |
Members of the project team need a strong |
|
A |
boss |
|
B |
problem orientation |
|
C |
manager |
|
D |
leader |
|
423. |
Team members need a strong |
|
A |
goal orientation |
|
B |
coordination |
|
C |
leader |
|
D |
task orientation |
|
424. |
Project workers need high |
|
A |
intention |
|
B |
self-esteem |
|
C |
goal |
|
D |
attitude |
|
425. |
Project Management Team must be |
|
A |
intellectual |
|
B |
prudent |
|
C |
dynamic |
|
D |
physically competent |
|
426. |
It is important to maintain the momentum in |
|
A |
implementation phase |
|
B |
planninig phase |
|
C |
initiation phase |
|
D |
closure phase |
|
427. |
The Project Management Institute (PMI) was founded in |
|
A |
1889 |
|
B |
1990 |
|
C |
1989 |
|
D |
2001 |
|
428. |
A secondary effect of using multidisciplinary teams to deal with
complex problems is |
|
A |
conflict |
|
B |
tie up |
|
C |
agreement |
|
D |
failure |
Module 2
|
Models that are easily altered to accommodate
changes in the environment or managerial policy, are |
|
|
A |
Profitability models |
|
B |
Scoring
models |
|
C |
Numeric models |
|
D |
Nonnumeric models |
|
430. |
Pareto Chart helps you find: |
|
A |
Minor sources creating the majority of
problems |
|
B |
Majority
of causes creating the minority of problems |
|
C |
Cause of
variation |
|
D |
Cause of
deviation |
|
431. |
Which is an example of Triple Constraint? |
|
A |
Scope,
Human Resource, Time |
|
B |
Quality,
Scope, Human Resource |
|
C |
Cost,
Human Resource, Time |
|
D |
Scope, Cost, Time |
|
|
|
|
432. |
When a firm chooses a project selection model,
the following criteria, based on Souder(1973), are most important. |
|
A |
Realism, capability, flexibility |
|
B |
b scope, cost |
|
C |
c Quality,flexiblity |
|
D |
d cost |
|
433. |
Follwing is Numeric models |
|
A |
The Sacred
Cow |
|
B |
Profitability |
|
C |
Competitive
necessity |
|
D |
Product
line extension |
|
434. |
The payback period for a project |
|
A |
is the initial fixed investment in the
project divided by the estimated annual net cash inflows from the project. |
|
B |
is the
discounted cash flow method determines the net present value of all cash
flows by discounting them by the required rate of return |
|
C |
Also known
as the benefit–cost ratio |
|
D |
the
internal rate of return is the discount rate that equates the present values
of the two sets of flows. |
|
435. |
You have created the project charter but could
not get it approved by senior management. Your manager and his boss have
asked you to begin the project anyway. Which of the following actions is the
best thing to do? |
|
A |
Focus on other projects that have a signed
charter. |
|
B |
Start work on critical path tasks. |
|
C |
Update your Project Risk Log. |
|
D |
Show your
manager the impact of proceeding without approval. |
|
436. |
The project charter should be issued by whom? |
|
A |
One or more functional managers |
|
B |
The head of the performing organization |
|
C |
A manager
external to the project |
|
D |
The CFO |
|
437. |
Stakeholder identification should be performed at
what point in a project? |
|
A |
Only during the planning phase |
|
B |
Only during project initiation |
|
C |
At the end of the project |
|
D |
Continuously
throughout the project |
|
438. |
Which of the following is not true about project
charter? |
|
A |
Project
charter is written by the Project Manager. |
|
B |
Project charter defines the purpose of the
project |
|
C |
Identify and authorizes the Project Manager |
|
D |
Project charter is authorized by Executive
Management |
|
439. |
Develop project charter is part of which process
group? |
|
A |
Initiation |
|
B |
Planning |
|
C |
Executing |
|
D |
Monitoring and Control |
|
440. |
What is a statement of work? |
|
A |
A narrative
description of the deliverables of a project |
|
B |
A final bill for a project |
|
C |
A project employee's timesheet |
|
D |
Proof that an employee can perform the duties
required by a project |
|
441. |
Models that are easily altered to accommodate
changes in the environment or managerial policy, are |
|
A |
Profitability models |
|
B |
Scoring
models |
|
C |
Numeric models |
|
D |
Nonnumeric models |
|
442. |
The models designed to overcome some of the
disadvantages of profitability model is known as |
|
A |
Scoring
models |
|
B |
Factoring models |
|
C |
Evaluation models |
|
D |
Gradation models |
|
443. |
The Delphi technique was developed by the Rand
Corporation in |
|
A |
1989 |
|
B |
1978 |
|
C |
1969 |
|
D |
1990 |
|
444. |
In profitability models, the variation falls into
general category of |
|
A |
2 types |
|
B |
3 types |
|
C |
4 types |
|
D |
6 types |
|
445. |
Why is payback method often considered inferior
to discounted cash flow in capital investment appraisal. |
|
A |
It is more
difficult to calculate |
|
B |
It does
not calculate how long it will take recoup the money invested |
|
C |
It only
takes into account the future income of a project. |
|
D |
it does not take account of the time value
of money |
|
446. |
The amount of time required to recover the
initial investment that the sponsors inject in the project. |
|
A |
Payback period |
|
B |
Net
present value |
|
C |
Internal
Rate of Return |
|
D |
Return on
Investment |
|
447. |
A project would normally be undertaken if its Net
Present Value (NPV) is |
|
A |
Exactly
the same as the NPV of the existing project |
|
B |
negative |
|
C |
positive |
|
D |
Zero |
|
448. |
Advantage of Profitability model is |
|
A |
Models that do not include discounting
ignore the timing of the cash flows and the time–value of money. |
|
B |
Payback-type models ignore cash flows beyond
the payback perio |
|
C |
All use
readily available accounting data to determine the cash flows. |
|
D |
All are sensitive
to errors in the input data for the early years of the project. |
Module 3
|
449. |
Earliest expected time of completion for an activity is found using |
|
A |
Expected time calculation |
|
B |
Forward Pass method |
|
C |
Backword Pass Method |
|
D |
Crashing |
|
450. |
Latest starting date for an activity is estimated using |
|
A |
Resource leveling |
|
B |
Backword Pass Method |
|
C |
Forward Pass method |
|
D |
Crashing |
|
451. |
Select the correct statement from the following |
|
A |
Slack or float of dummy activity is always equal to zero |
|
B |
There is always only one critical path in the network |
|
C |
A path is called a
critical path if it is the longest path in a project network |
|
D |
Crashing cost linearly increases with no of days crashed |
|
452. |
Why does activities on critical path of a CPM network are called
critical |
|
A |
They represent maximum project completion time |
|
B |
They cannot tolerate any
delay in completion |
|
C |
They consume maximum rresources |
|
D |
These are most cpmplex activities on project |
|
453. |
If an activity with free slack time of 2 weeks is delayed by 1 week |
|
A |
the project will be delayed by 1 week. |
|
B |
the slack time of all activities that follow this activity is reduced
by 1 week. |
|
C |
no other activity in the
project is affected. |
|
D |
the probability of completing the project on time decreases. |
|
454. |
When many activities are planned to start at the same time in project
schedule, the project is likely to be following |
|
A |
Goldratt's Critical Chain |
|
B |
Concurrent Engineering |
|
C |
Research and Development Project |
|
D |
laddering approach |
|
455. |
A projeect has three independent critical paths A (Having maximum no.
of activities), B(Using maximum rsources) and C(Having maximum crashing
cost). To reduce the project length, we have to crash |
|
A |
Activities on Path A |
|
B |
Activities on Path B |
|
C |
Activities on Path C |
|
D |
Activities on Paths A, B
and C simultaneously |
|
456. |
In PERT, if the pessimistic time were 14 weeks, the optimistic time
were 8 weeks, and the most likely time were 11 weeks, |
|
A |
the variance would be 1
week. |
|
B |
the variance would be 11 weeks. |
|
C |
the expected time would be 6 weeks. |
|
D |
the expected time would be 5.5 weeks. |
|
457. |
Project Manager is looking at a document that outlines the specific
tasks and subtasks required to complete the writing of program for accounting
system. The document is most likely the ….... |
|
A |
Responsibility matrix |
|
B |
Organization breakdown structure |
|
C |
Work breakdown structure |
|
D |
Priority matrix |
|
458. |
The lowest element in the hierarchical breakdown of the WBS is |
|
A |
Deliverable |
|
B |
Work package |
|
C |
Responsibility matrix |
|
D |
Bottoms up budget |
|
459. |
Cost accountant is forecasting how much money her department needs to
support a new project. She estimates that two people and Rs.2.5 lakhs in
expenses will cover her needs. Since usually management insists on reducing
forecasts by 20 percent, she increases her estimates to allow for that
reduction. This is example of.. |
|
A |
Padding of estimates |
|
B |
Planning horizon |
|
C |
People behaviour |
|
D |
Organization culture |
|
460. |
Which of the following is a good condition for top-down estimating? |
|
A |
Tight Cost and time deadlines |
|
B |
Internal, small project |
|
C |
Fixed price contract |
|
D |
Customer wants details of estimates |
|
461. |
Information to develop a project network is collected from the |
|
A |
Work breakdown structure |
|
B |
Budget |
|
C |
Project proposal |
|
D |
Responsibility matrix |
|
462. |
Part of a project is to 'Develop Product Specifications'. This is best
classified as a(an) |
|
A |
Event |
|
B |
Path |
|
C |
Activity |
|
D |
Milestone |
|
463. |
A critical path of a projeect has four independent activities
A(5,1.666), B(15,1.666), D(4,0.444) and E(5,0). The bracketed terms are
(expected time, standard deviation) The expected duration of critical path is
…... and variance of critical path is ….... |
|
A |
29 , 2.39 |
|
B |
29 , 5.75 |
|
C |
29 , 3.77 |
|
D |
24 , 3.77 |
|
464. |
A project has following activities with their duration in brackets.
1-2(6), 1-3(5), 3-4(5), 2-4(5), 2-5(8) and 4-5(2). What is the duration of
the project? |
|
A |
12 |
|
B |
16 |
|
C |
14 |
|
D |
13 |
|
465. |
A critical path of a projeect has three independent activities A(5,1),
B(3,1) and D(4,2). The bracketed terms are (expected time, standard
deviation) The expected duration of critical path is …... and probability of
completing it in that duration is…. |
|
A |
12, 50% |
|
B |
12, 98% |
|
C |
8, 50% |
|
D |
9, 98% |
|
466. |
An activity considered for PERT scheduling has estimated durations as,
optimistic 5 days, pessimistic 10 days, and most likely 6 days. What is the
expected time duration for this activity? |
|
A |
6.5 days |
|
B |
9 days |
|
C |
8.5 days |
|
D |
5.5 days |
|
467. |
An activity on the CPM network has Early start on 8th day, Early
Finish is 14th day, Late start is 10th day and Late finish is 16th day. What
is the float available for this activity? |
|
A |
6 days |
|
B |
8 days |
|
C |
1 day |
|
D |
2 days |
|
468. |
The project has critical path duration of 21 weeks and the variance of
critical path is 3.44. What is completion time corresponding to 98%
probability if Z value is 2.06 for 98% probability? |
|
A |
21 weeks |
|
B |
25 weeks |
|
C |
28 weeks |
|
D |
20 weeks |
Module 4
|
469. |
The percentage of likelihood of
every risk is - |
|
A |
100% |
|
B |
75% |
|
C |
50% |
|
D |
25% |
|
470. |
Risk management is
responsibility of the - |
|
A |
Customer |
|
B |
Investor |
|
C |
Developer |
|
D |
Project team |
|
471. |
Which of the following
technique will ensure that impact of risk will be less? |
|
A |
Risk avoidance technique |
|
B |
Risk Mitigation technique |
|
C |
Risk contingency technique |
|
D |
Risk monotoring technique |
|
472. |
What is associated with product
risk? |
|
A |
Control of test item |
|
B |
Negative consequences |
|
C |
non-availability of test
environment |
|
D |
Test object |
|
473. |
What is risk? |
|
A |
Negative consequence that could occur |
|
B |
Negative consequence that will
occur |
|
C |
Negative consequence that must
occur |
|
D |
Negative consequence that shall
occur |
|
474. |
A document you use to capture
all known risks is called |
|
A |
Risk Log |
|
B |
Risk Register |
|
C |
Risk List |
|
D |
Risk Diary |
|
475. |
A process that involves
prioritizing risks for further action or analysis by assessing the impact and the probability
of occurrence is called- |
|
A |
Qualitative Risk Analysis |
|
B |
Risk Brainstorming |
|
C |
Quantitative Risk Analysis |
|
D |
Risk Retrospective |
|
476. |
When do you perform Risk
Identification? |
|
A |
At the beginning of a project. |
|
B |
During project planning. |
|
C |
During the whole lifetime of a project. |
|
D |
During project execution. |
|
477. |
What is the correct option in
which terms the Risk is expressed ? |
|
A |
probability and impact. |
|
B |
probability and cost |
|
C |
probability and time |
|
D |
probability and data |
|
478. |
What assess the risk and your plans
for risk mitigation and revise these when you learn more about the risk? |
|
A |
Risk monitoring |
|
B |
Risk planning |
|
C |
Risk analysis |
|
D |
Risk identification |
|
479. |
Risk should be analysed and
evalauted considering the |
|
A |
Likelihood and cost |
|
B |
Likelihood and Level of impact |
|
C |
Likelihood and time |
|
D |
Likelihood and data |
|
480. |
Which method is not used for
Qualitative risk analysis ? |
|
A |
delphi method |
|
B |
SWIFT analysis |
|
C |
Decision Tree Analysis |
|
D |
Backtracking method |
|
481. |
Which method is not used for
Quantitative risk analysis ? |
|
A |
Three point estimation |
|
B |
Decision Tree Analysis |
|
C |
SWIFT analysis |
|
D |
Expected Monetery Value(EMV) |
|
482. |
A risk is known as Positive
risk or opportunity if- |
|
A |
Impact is positive which you may want to actualize |
|
B |
Impact is negative which you
want to lesson its impact |
|
C |
Impact is positive which you
want to lesson its impact |
|
D |
Impact is negative which you
may want to actualize |
|
483. |
Strategy to deal with negative
risk are- |
|
A |
Escalate, mitigate, transfer, avoid, accept |
|
B |
costing |
|
C |
listing |
|
D |
exploit |
Module 5
|
484. |
Of the following baselines which is not a part of the Project
Management Plan ? |
|
A |
Scope Baseline |
|
B |
Quality Baseline |
|
C |
Cost Baseline |
|
D |
Schedule Baseline |
|
485. |
A project is overbudget when |
|
A |
CPI > 1 |
|
B |
SPI > 1 |
|
C |
CPI and SPI > 1 |
|
D |
CPI less than 1 |
|
486. |
You are the project manager and have decided to outsource a part of
the project to a vendor. You have offered a bonus to the vendor if the work
is completed in two months. This is an example of _____________. |
|
A |
project incentive |
|
B |
project goal |
|
C |
fixed price contract |
|
D |
Time and Material |
|
487. |
You are responsible for a project with high risks particularly during
the early phases - your sponsor has asked for performance reports on a
monthly basis. At the end of the first month you report a CPI greater than 1
and also the SPI greater than 1. What would this mean ? |
|
A |
The project is behind
schedule and over budget |
|
B |
The project is ahead of schedule and under budget |
|
C |
The project is ahead of schedule but over budget |
|
D |
The project is behind schedule but under budget |
|
488. |
As a part of the Executive Management team - you have a number of
project managers reporting into you. One of the project managers has reported
data for her project that has got you worried regarding health of the
project. EV = 300000 USD , PV = 550000 USD , AC = 200000 USD You are worried
since as per your calculations the project is behind schedule. However the
Project Manager disagrees and she feels the project is ahead of schedule -
what is the correct interpretation of the data ? |
|
A |
Both are incorrect - the
health of the project cannot be determined from this information |
|
B |
Both are correct as interpretation is very subjective |
|
C |
You are correct - the project is behind schedule |
|
D |
Your Project Manager is correct - the project is ahead of schedule |
|
489. |
As a manager on a project you have identified and created the WBS and
WBS Dictionary.You also plan to ensure that each deliverable gets the
blessings of your stakeholders and sponsors.Which process are you planning to
perform? |
|
A |
Scope Verification |
|
B |
Perform Quality Control |
|
C |
Control Scope |
|
D |
Define Scope |
|
490. |
If the planned value (PV) is $275,000 and the earned value (EV) is
$300,000, the schedule variance (SV) is: |
|
A |
25,000 USD |
|
B |
Negative 25000 USD |
|
C |
125,000 USD |
|
D |
575,000 USD |
|
491. |
You have been given 100,000 USD to complete the project. 60,000 USD
has been spent, though as per the schedule, 55,000 USD should have been spent
to complete the same work. What is the Budget at Completion (BAC)? |
|
A |
55,000 USD |
|
B |
100,000 USD |
|
C |
60,000 USD |
|
D |
105,000 USD |
|
492. |
You have been given 100,000 USD to complete the project. 60,000 USD
has been spent, though as per the schedule, 55,000 USD should have been spent
to complete the same work. What is the Actual Cost (AC)? |
|
A |
55,000 USD |
|
B |
100,000 USD |
|
C |
60,000 USD |
|
D |
105,000 USD |
|
493. |
You have been given 100,000 USD to complete the project. 60,000 USD
has been spent, though as per the schedule, 55,000 USD should have been spent
to complete the same work. What is the Planned Value (PV)? |
|
A |
55,000 USD |
|
B |
100,000 USD |
|
C |
60,000 USD |
|
D |
105,000 USD |
|
494. |
You are in charge of a project and to ensure things go well - you have
had monthly meetings with the stakeholders.The project is running on schedule
and budget.You are in your fourth month of execution - but the stakeholder
indicates dissatisfaction with the deliverables.To make changes in the
deliverables would mean a delay in the schedule.What would have been the most
important process that could have prevented this situation? |
|
A |
Scope Planning |
|
B |
Scope Control |
|
C |
Schedule Control |
|
D |
Risk Monitoring and Control |
|
495. |
The project that you are in charge has been successfully completed.The
last of the deliverables have been formally accepted by the client.You had
several contractors with whom contracts were prepared.With the project done
you decide to communicate the completion details and closure of
contracts.Which is the best form of communication? |
|
A |
Formal written |
|
B |
Formal verbal |
|
C |
Informal verbal |
|
D |
Informal written |
|
496. |
You are in charge of a software project and you are almost 40%
complete.The project stakeholders want a performance report to date.You had
planned to use Earned Value Management methodology.You come up with the
following numbers: EV = 100 AC = 300 PV = 150 BAC = 600 You and your team
have faced numerous issues till now . However you choose to ignore the
current work performance and decide to go with what was originally planned.
Based on this information what would be the EAC for the project ? |
|
A |
800 |
|
B |
200 |
|
C |
600 |
|
D |
1800 |
|
497. |
As a manager on a project your key outlook is to ensure that the
project delivers within the scheduled timelines with minimal rework and
customer delight.For some time now the project work is proceeding smoothly
with a CPI and SPI a perfect 1.One of your team members approaches you and
indicates that she might possibly need a long vacation on personal
grounds.She indicates this could possibly occur in two months from now.You
look up the schedule and as luck would have it - this team member happens to
be scheduled to execute activities which are on the critical path - and her
absence in two months time would cause a delay in schedule.You decide to take
some action and reschedule task allocation to ensure that this team member is
not planned to work on any of the critical path activities.What did you just
do ? |
|
A |
Mitigate the risk |
|
B |
Avoid the risk |
|
C |
Transfer the risk |
|
D |
Exploit the risk |
|
498. |
You are in charge of building a shopping portal.You are fairly confident
as you have a team experienced in doing such work.As per the agreement at the
end of the first month you organize a demonstration of the software.You
invite the sponsor and key stakeholders.Later the sponsor informs you that
she is not very happy with the progress indicating that one of the clients
who would be using this software is not satisfied as her needs are not being
met.To satisfy this client's needs would mean some radical changes with an
impact to both cost and schedule.What could be the root cause of this issue? |
|
A |
Deliverables were not as per requirement |
|
B |
The stakeholder is making unrealistic demands |
|
C |
The scope statement was ambiguous leading to this |
|
D |
All the stakeholders
were not identified |
|
499. |
You are in your third month of project execution which is expected to
continue for a duration of 14 calendar months. Your sponsor has asked for a
performance report. You decide to create a S curve. Based on the S curve you
report your Actual Cost which is more than the Earned Value.Also the Planned
Value is greater than the Earned Value. What would be the interpretation of
this data ? |
|
A |
The project is over
budget and behind schedule |
|
B |
The project is on schedule and on budget |
|
C |
The project is over budget but on schedule |
|
D |
The project is on budget but behind schedule |
|
500. |
Your company has been tasked with providing estimates for a road
construction project. You have data available related to costs per square
feet. You now need to provide an estimate of the cost of the project based on
this data - what estimation technique is most applicable in such a scenario ? |
|
A |
Top Down estimates |
|
B |
Parametric Estimating
technique |
|
C |
Bottom Up Estimating |
|
D |
Analogous Estimation |
|
501. |
You have successfully completed a project.You have now been assigned a
project which is midway into its execution.You have had to take this project
due to non availability of the current project manager due to health.This is
a complex project involving multiple contractors and teams at various
geographical locations.You decide to look up the requirements of the types of
reports and frequency of sending them.Where would you find this information? |
|
A |
Project Management Plan |
|
B |
Scope Management Plan |
|
C |
Communication Management
Plan |
|
D |
Stakeholder Analysis |
|
502. |
Midway through the project as a Manager you are performing Earned
Value Methodology to report performance. Based on your calculations you
realize that the initial plan is no longer valid.However you still need to
provide an EAC - what is the best course of action ? |
|
A |
Calculate EAC as EAC = BAC / CPI |
|
B |
Calculate EAC as EAC = AC + BAC - EV |
|
C |
Calculate EAC as EAC = AC + (BAC - EV/(CPI * SPI ) |
|
D |
Calculate EAC as EAC =
AC + Bottom up Estimate |
|
503. |
Which of the following statement is true regarding Procurement
Documents |
|
A |
These are the response documents provided by Seller to the Buyer. |
|
B |
It is the formal agreed contract between the buyer and seller |
|
C |
It is used to solicit
proposals from sellers and contains details of expected services or work to
be done |
|
D |
Describes how product or services will be acquired externally and type
of contract to be administered |
Module 6
|
504. |
Professional ethics is to followed only in |
|
A |
at Work place |
|
B |
at home |
|
C |
in service |
|
D |
at work, in home and in
service |
|
505. |
Professional ethics will come to rescue when we are |
|
A |
ask to compromise on our
integrity or on value |
|
B |
ask to compromise on our technical cability |
|
C |
ask to compromise on our technical capacity |
|
D |
ask to compromise in our efforts |
|
506. |
Most important 4 values identified by PMI are responsibility, respect,
fairness, and |
|
A |
sincere |
|
B |
dishonesty |
|
C |
Honesty |
|
D |
workoholic |
|
507. |
Which conduct is subject to disciplinary action |
|
A |
Aspirational conduct |
|
B |
Mandatory conduct |
|
C |
Organisational conduct |
|
D |
Personal conduct |
|
508. |
As practitioner we make decision and take action based on the best
interests of society, public safety, and |
|
A |
Self |
|
B |
Family |
|
C |
Organisation |
|
D |
environment |
|
509. |
We should accept only those assignments that are consistent with our
background, experience, skills, and |
|
A |
qualification |
|
B |
exposure |
|
C |
familiarity |
|
D |
knowledge |
|
510. |
When we make errors or ommision |
|
A |
we take ownership and make no correction |
|
B |
we take ownership and
make necessary correction |
|
C |
we do not take ownership and make necessary correction |
|
D |
we do not take ownership and make no necessary correction |
|
511. |
We listen to others point of view, seeking to understand them is |
|
A |
Respect |
|
B |
Responsibility |
|
C |
Conduct |
|
D |
Fairness |
|
512. |
When our conduct is free from self interest , prejudice, and
favaritism is |
|
A |
Respect |
|
B |
Responsibility |
|
C |
Conduct |
|
D |
Fairness |
|
513. |
PMI followed processes laid by ______ in formulating ethics |
|
A |
ACM |
|
B |
ANSI |
|
C |
IEEE |
|
D |
IETE |
Mixed MCQ
|
514.
|
Which
of the following is the most important element of Project Management Plan
that is useful in Planning process: |
|
A:
|
Risk
Management activities |
|
B:
|
Quality
Assurance activities |
|
C: |
Activity Resource requirements |
|
D:
|
Budget
Control activities
|
|
515.
|
CPM
is an acronym for |
|
A:
|
Control
Path Method |
|
B: |
Critical Path Method |
|
C:
|
Cohesion
Path Method |
|
D:
|
Control
Path Model
|
|
516.
|
A
Project with a total funding of $100,000 finished with a BAC value of
$95,000. What
term can BEST describe the difference of $5,000? |
|
A:
|
Cost
Variance |
|
B:
|
Management
Overhead |
|
C: |
Management Contingency Reserve |
|
D:
|
Schedule
Variance
|
|
517. |
Activity
Definition is typically performed by which of the following: |
|
A:
|
Project
Manager who created the WBS |
|
B: |
Project Team Members responsible for
the work package
|
|
C:
|
Project
Officer |
|
D:
|
Project
Stakeholder
|
|
518.
|
Expected
risks in a project is represented in a tabular form by * |
|
A:
|
Risk
Table |
|
B:
|
Assessment
Table |
|
C:
|
Time
Table |
|
D:
|
Round
Table
|
|
519.
|
A
project has a 60% chance of a $100,000 profit and a 40 percent of a $100,000
loss. The Expected Monetary Value for the project is: |
|
A:
|
$100,000
profit |
|
B:
|
$60,000
loss |
|
C: |
$ 20,000 profit |
|
D:
|
$40,000
loss |
|
520. |
The time taken to break even or pay back the initial investment
is called as |
|
A: |
Back
period. |
|
B: |
Payback period. |
|
C: |
Cash back period. |
|
D: |
Rate of Return.
|
|
521. |
The expenditure and income taken place in a project is indicated
by |
|
A: |
Cash flow forecast. |
|
B: |
Cost analysis. |
|
C: |
Fund flow. |
|
D: |
Technical forecast.
|
|
522. |
The method which is carried out to calculate the earliest dates
on which each activity may be started and completed is ** |
|
A: |
Backward pass |
|
B: |
Forward pass |
|
C: |
No pass. |
|
D: |
Increasing pass.
|
|
523. |
The shortest time in which we could expect to complete the
activity, barring outright miracles is called as |
|
A: |
Optimistic Time |
|
B: |
Pessimistic Time |
|
C: |
Most Likely Time |
|
D: |
Shortest Time
|
|
524. |
Which of these is not one of the constraints of a project? |
|
A: |
Scope |
|
B: |
Team |
|
C: |
Resources |
|
D: |
Budget
|
|
525. |
Which is not one of the stages of Project Management Lifecycle? ** |
|
A: |
Definition and Conceptualization |
|
B: |
Management and Measurement |
|
C: |
Planning and Budgeting |
|
D: |
Execution and Control
|
|
526. |
Activities A, B, and C are the immediate predecessors for Y
activity. If the earliest finish times for the three activities are 12, 15,
and 10, then the earliest start time for Y will be |
|
A: |
10 |
|
B: |
15 |
|
C: |
12 |
|
D: |
100
|
|
527. |
The critical path is referred to as the |
|
A: |
Most direct path from the beginning node to the ending node |
|
B: |
Shortest path in terms of time |
|
C: |
Longest path in terms of
time |
|
D: |
Path with the largest amount of slack time
|
|
528. |
A schedule activity may begin 10 days before the predecessor
activity finishes. This is an example of: |
|
A: |
Finish-to-Start |
|
B: |
Start-to-Finish |
|
C: |
Start-to-Start |
|
D: |
Finish-to-Finish
|
|
529. |
Resource requirement in project becomes constant while the
project is in its what progress stage |
|
A: |
40 to 55% |
|
B: |
55 to 70% |
|
C: |
70 to 80% |
|
D: |
80 to 95%
|
|
530. |
What limits the options of the project team? |
|
A: |
Constraints |
|
B: |
Assumptions |
|
C: |
Technology |
|
D: |
Deliverables
|
|
531. |
The difference between the cumulative earned value ofthe work
performed and the cumulative actual cost is known as |
|
A: |
Cost performance index |
|
B: |
Cost variance |
|
C: |
Budgeted costs |
|
D: |
Cost quality index
|
|
532. |
Which of the following does NOT generate changes to the Project
documents: |
|
A: |
Define Activities |
|
B: |
Sequence Activities |
|
C: |
Estimate Activity Resources |
|
D: |
Estimate Activity Durations
|
|
533. |
If the Earned Value is equal to Actual Cost, it means |
|
A: |
Project is on budget and on schedule |
|
B: |
Schedule variance index is 1 |
|
C: |
There is no schedule variance |
|
D: |
There is no cost variance |
Additional Question 533+
1. Projects
are unique and temporary, while operations are
A: Specific
And Targeted
B: Ongoing and Permanent with a
Repetitive Output
C: Unique And
Permanent With Non-Repetitive Outputs
D: Ongoing And
Temporary
2 From a
practical perspective, what is the most important element of a good project
communication management approach?
A: Setup a
regular and frequent method for communicating with team members and
stakeholders and then follow it.
B: Conduct
one-on-one meetings (face-to-face or virtual) with project team members every
week.
C: Ensure all project communication
between team members and stakeholders goes through the Project Leader so that
there is no opportunity for misunderstanding.
D: Telephonic
conversation, and Emails
3. The lowest
element in the hierarchical breakdown of the WBS is
A: Work package
B: Responsibility
matrix
C: Bottoms up
budget
D: Deliverable
4. Use of
PMIS is comparatively less in this process group of project management
A: Initiating
B: Executing
C: Monitoring
and Controlling
D: Planning
5. Which of
the following represents the estimated value of the work actually accomplished?
A: Earned value (EV)
B: Planned
value (PV)
C: Actual
cost (AC
D: Cost
variance (CV)
6. __________
is the discounting rate, which delivers a Net Present Value equal to zero
A: ARR
B: IRR
C: NPV
D:
Profitability Index
7. Project is
stopped due to either its successful or unsuccessful conclusion. Auditing, team on new assignment, assets
transferred as per policy is known as :
A: Extinction
B: Addition
C: Integration
D: Starvation
8. The
process of partnering is an attempt to mitigate he risk associated with
A: Networking
B: Uncertainty
C: Risks
D: Subcontracting
9 Project
Risk = _------------* Consequences of Event.
None of the above
A: Loss
B: Outcomes
of Event
C: Probability of Event
D: Profit
10. What is the
correct sequence of stages in group development
A: Forming,
Norming, Performing, Storming, Adjourning
B: Forming,
Norming, Storming, Performing , Adjourning
C: Forming, Storming, Norming,
Performing , Adjourning
D: Forming,
Performing, Norming, Storming , Adjourning
11. An activity
has an optimistic time 11 days, a most likely time of 15 days, and a
pessimistic time of 23 days. What is its variance?
A: 15.6
B: 16.33
C: 4
D: 2
12. What are
the determinants of project success as per Iron Triangle?
A:
Resources, Cost, Performance
B:
Knowledge, Time, Resources
C: Cost,
Skills, Performance
D: Cost, Performance, Time
13 What is the
correct sequence for the following processes of Project Risk Management:
1. Plan Risk Management;
2. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis;
3. Identify Risks;
4. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis;
5. Plan Risk Responses;
6. Control Risks
A: 1-2-3-4-5-6
B: 1-3-2-4-5-6
C: 1-3-4-2-5-6
D: 3-1-2-4-5-6
14. Arrange the
following elements of the Project Cycle in the right order:
A- Project
Appraisal
B-
Feasibility Analysis
C-
Negotiation
D- Project
Selection
A: A-B-C-D
B: B-A-C-D
C: B-A-D-C
D: B-C-A-D
15. An activity
takes 4 days to complete at a normal cost of Rs.500. If it is possible to
complete the activity in 2 days with an additional cost of Rs.700, what is the
incremental cost of activity.
A: 100
B: 125
C: 1000
D: 250
16. In
PERT/CPM, slack time is :
A: Is the amount of time a task may be
delayed without changing the overall project completion time
B: Is the
latest time an activity can be started without delaying the entire project
C: Is a task
or subproject that must be completed
D: Marks the
start or completion of a task
17. The review
of the successes and the mistakes is normally held during ___ phase.
A: Initiation
B: Planning
C: Execution
D: Closure
